MY SECOND RESPONSE on NOV 6, 2007:

Good Morning my friend,

Right now it is 5:20 AM. Excuse me for delaying in getting back to you. The reason for this delay is because even though most of my brothers of Jewish culture observed Chag Succoth / Feast of Tabernacles last month, which is based on the non-biblical premise of some sage of the 4th century (namely Hillel II), I have just gotten done observing it right before the sabbath. In case you are curious about this, we folks that want to live the biblical Judaism vs. the "rabbinical" Judaism must use the first "new Moon" or Rosh Chodesh on or any time after the first day of Spring for Rosh HaShannah or New Year, and the seventh month must always come on or anytime after the first day of Autumn. Because my fellow Jews observed their awful "rabbinical" calendar, they sinned by not observing any of this year's festivals in their proper time, but did so a whole month earlier. So, on Nov 1 I was getting ready for a double-header holiday, the 8th day of Succoth, a special-type of sabbath, followed by a regular sabbath. During these days, I am not allowed to use the computer or conduct any sort of business, as according to the holy prophet Amos in 8:5 and Nehemiah 10:31. Because of this I must also turn off all of my utilities, because if they are on the meter is still running, and I must pay for such things later. So, finally, here I am to answer your question, my dear friend.

If you are married in a synagogue only and not by someone of the "state;" or, by a Jewish minister that believes in the "shema" of Duet 6:4, in the Jewish sense and not a trinitarian "Christian" sense, then it is binding, if and only if there are two or more witnesses. Binding in the eyes of the God of Heaven, that is. Thus, marriage counts only in His eyes, not any state. Marriage in the "eyes" of the state is only beneficial for tax purposes and for particular state-run purposes. Besides all of this, they don't care what faith one is, or if a person or "couple" even have some sort of faith. Let's say two Buddhists get married in the court house of your local city; yes, that is binding in the "eyes" of the "state," but not in the eyes of the God of Heaven. Because neither party [the state, nor the Buddhist "couple"] acknowledge the God of Israel, the God of Heaven. Thus, if this "couple" have sexual relations after this point, they are committing fornication, they are NOT truly married. This is the same with a Muslim couple, because the Muslim god, Allah, does not even exist. Thus, they are committing fornication, they are not truly married in the eyes of heaven. If, the "Muslim" woman simply leaves her so-called "husband" and converts to believe in the God of Israel, the only true God, and then gets married to another man by one who believes in the "Shema [in the Jewish sense]," and agrees to it, she and the new man in her life are finally and truly married in the eyes of Heaven. This is true, regardless if she never got "divorced" by the state, for she need not care what the state thinks, though she might get in trouble by the "state" for committing "adultery" in the eyes of the state. If this is the case with someone, they must not get married by the state in that country, because Muslims will "kill" their wives if they dare be with another man.

In a similar way, let's say two Catholics get married in a Catholic Church in Texas. The Priest of that particular church has the authority to "marry" people by the state of Texas. Once "married," the moment they have sexual relations, or kiss, or whatever else, they commit fornication and/or do deeds that are forbidden in the eyes of heaven. Why?

Because the messiah of Judaism and, also reality is not God, nor is he a part of some nonexistent triune God. The messiah of Judaism is a made being; therefore it is impossible for him to be God. Likewise, as just mentioned, the God of the Jews is not a trinity god, nor a triune god. He is a single God, like you and I are separate from each other. He only has one body, one head, one mouth, one throne, one law for all mankind, one personality and He alone is eternal. Furthermore, because this Catholic couple gets married in the name of some trinity god, they are not truly married. Once they join each other, they will commit fornication and will do so all their days until they should convert to the truth. Thus, if a catholic woman gets "married" twice or many times more, she has NEVER really been married in the eyes of heaven. Because the god she believes in does not exist, this goes also for the baptist, the Methodist and all those that believe in the trinity.

Getting "divorced" in the eyes of the church and/or state, might be challenging for the converted Catholic woman, but even if she does not succeed in this for some time (as so-called divorce courts cases might take), she need not worry about this in the eyes of God, if they don't allow her to divorce. She should not try to get married by the state again, however, until she does get "divorced" by the state, because she might find herself in jail for having "two" husbands.

This is why I was asking, in detail, my particular questions. I need to know details before I can truly answer you with the answer you are looking for.

If the Catholic girl converts and walks away from the man she has been with, she will do that which is righteous in the eyes of heaven. If she should find another man and he also believe in the "Shema (Deut 6:4)" and they get married by someone that also believes in the Shema, their vows are finally binding. They are truly married. They must never divorce.

With this, let's move on to the Jewish couple. All Judaic marriages are true marriages in the eyes of heaven. They must never divorce, unless certain circumstances take place.

Here, I might lose you because of the stark differences between ancient biblical culture of which I am trying to spread vs. the modern [and many times tainted] Jewish culture.

In biblical culture, thus meaning - in the eyes of heaven - because HaShem instituted it - a man is allowed to have more than one wife.

So, what am I saying here that is offensive in American culture? If a couple should get married in the right way, as I just mentioned, and then after a while the man will find a second lady, and gets tempted and so fornicates with her, the wife is not allowed to get a divorce under these circumstances. "Why not?" you ask. Because a man IS allowed to have more than one wife; thus, he is not committing adultery, as would be the case in American law. We, however, are not speaking of American law, but Biblical law. Thus, he has simply committed fornication. So what does the Torah say about fornication? It says that he must marry her, unless her parents refuse.

Exodus 22:16-17: "If a man seduces a virgin who is not engaged, and lies with her, he must pay a dowry for her {to be} his wife. If her father absolutely refuses to give her to him, he shall pay money equal to the dowry for virgins."

This is consensual intercourse.

Deuteronomy 22:28, "If a man find a damsel [that is] a virgin, which is not betrothed, and lay hold on / seize her, and lie with her, and they be found; Then the man that lay with her shall give unto the damsel's father fifty [shekels] of silver, and she shall be his wife; because he hath humbled her, he may not put her away all his days." This is not consensual intercourse.

Even though these two consensual fornicators will go to hell for their actions, unless they should repent, there still remains no harsh or extreme worldly judgment for such actions in Judaism; except for a few lashes from a whip or rod. Other than this, they are required by the torah to get married right away. In Judaism, people are not allowed to be "boyfriend and girlfriend." Because the society must be holy and "open," debaseness must not be allowed or tolerated. Such scourgings shall occur if there are two or more witnesses and no '"witness" is to allow such actions or let such actions "slide by" or act as if he never witnessed anything.

Disclaimer: Most of my Jewish brothers don't believe in Hell, even though the Tanakh does speak of its existence (Dan 12:2 & Dan 7:11).

Again, such a man must pay the lady's parents her dowry and then marry her. Her dowry would be the equal value of today's price to the value of whatever 50 shekels of silver was worth 3,300 years ago. Remember, that a slave was valued at 30 shekels of silver. A Hebrew slave was set free after his sixth year of service; thus, [possibly] 30 shekels of silver was worth 6 years of labor. On a crass comparison: Using the "Federal minimum income" wage per hour, this value would be something like $5.85 x 48 hours (since the ancients worked 6 days a week, not 5) x 52 weeks x 6 years =  $87,609.60 [this is just guessing at such values). This might sound like a lot of money to the common modern American person, because we do not use gold, silver, bronze, gems, spices, articles of clothing and furs for our money or currency anymore. But if we did gold could come by pretty easy if one knows how to "pan" for it or dig for it as the miners did in California during the California "gold rush" days of 1849. For we cannot just find dollar bills in some mountain somewhere. In many cases people of the old West and even today, people will stumble acoss a gold nugget that might be worth several thousands of dollars.

The only time a woman may divorce a man is if he commits adultery, homosexuality, or bestiality. Other than these three offensives she may not divorce him.  Even if her husband should commit incest with his own sister or some other close relative that is not married, she cannot divorce him. On only one particular act of incest can she divorce in a secular society, that being if he should marry a woman and also marry or has sexual intercourse with that woman's daughter. I say, "secular society," because if this were is a biblical society, such deeds would be out in the open pretty fast and that would result in the death of all three of the people by fire. With that end result, the original wife would be set free from this wicked husband just by his mere death alone. Until that time however, she can leave.

Therefore, there are only four reasons a woman can truly get divorced from a genuine marriage in the eyes of heaven. Other than these four reasons she cannot get divorced. Even if they don't love each other anymore they cannot get a divorce.

In regards to the four particular types of sinners (homosexuals, those that commit bestiality, particular incest and adultery) in ancient Israel, when the people used to live by the theocratic way vs. the Hellenistic standards of today, the woman would be free pretty fast from such men, because they would be guilty of a capital offense in most of these cases and so would be stoned on the basis of two or more witnesses. Because, however, the state of Israel doesn't live under the laws of their God, but in the ways of the Greeks and their democratic ways, if such men were to do such things, the woman can divorce such wicked men, because he has broken the marital covenant he made before the God of Israel. She is free to go if she so desires.

Other forms of incest do not allow the woman to divorce her husband. Let me show you:

Leviticus 18:6, "None of you shall approach any blood relative of his to uncover nakedness; I am the LORD."

Lev 18:9, "The nakedness of your sister, {either} your father's daughter or your mother's daughter, whether born at

  home or born outside, their nakedness you shall not uncover."

Lev 20:17, "If {there is} a man who takes his sister, his father's daughter or his mother's daughter, so that he sees

  her nakedness and she sees his nakedness, it is a disgrace; and they shall be cut off in the sight of the sons of

  their people. He has uncovered his sister's nakedness; he bears his guilt."

This type of incest does not result in death. Rather, the brother must marry his sister as back in the days when Adam's children had to marry each other and when Noah's children had to marry with their own close relatives, obviously, which is now forbidden. The consequences for this action is pretty severe, the couple must not live in the borders of Israel. One case of this after the time Moses went to Sinai is with King David's own children. The story is found in 2 Samuel 13, you can read it here. I do, however, want to point out verses 15 and 16, because there you can see the reaction of poor Tamar, after her rape, to prove that Amnon had to then marry her.

                "Then Amnon hated her exceedingly; so that the hatred

                wherewith he hated her [was] greater than the love wherewith

                he had loved her. And Amnon said unto her, Arise, be gone.

                And she said unto him, [There is] no cause: this evil in sending

                me away [is] greater than the other that thou didst unto me.

                But he would not hearken unto her.

Lev 18:10, "The nakedness of your son's daughter or your daughter's daughter, their nakedness you shall not

  uncover; for their nakedness is yours."

This is a man and his grand-daughter. If a man should break this commandment, there is "apparently" no severe consequences for their actions, for there is no judgment in the Torah about it. They "apparently" can live in the land and remain married. Obviously, this was done by fornication, because witnesses would not be allowed to approve of such a marriage. Thus, it would be an automatic marriage by fornicative default.

Lev 18:12, "You shall not uncover the nakedness of your father's sister; she is your father's blood relative."

Lev 18:13, "You shall not uncover the nakedness of your mother's sister, for she is your mother's blood relative."

Lev 20:19, "You shall also not uncover the nakedness of your mother's sister or of your father's sister, for such a

  one has made naked his blood relative; they will bear their guilt."

The judgment on this is that they are not kicked out of the land of Israel here, they just, apparently, bear their shame.

Even though Lev 20:12 says, "'If {there is} a man who lies with his daughter-in-law, both of them shall surely be put to death; they have committed incest, their bloodguilt is upon them," this is allowed after the man's son dies. But this is ONLY true, if and ONLY if, his son did not have any male children/offspring and if the dead man did not have any brothers to fulfill the commandment of Deut 25:5-6, "If brethren dwell together, and one of them die, and have no child, the wife of the dead shall not marry without unto a stranger: her husband's brother shall go in unto her, and take her to him to wife, and perform the duty of an husband's brother unto her. And it shall be, [that] the firstborn which she beareth shall succeed in the name of his brother [which is] dead, that his name be not put out of

Israel." Only in this circumstance he may marry his son's wife, for this ended up being the case with Tamar, the semi-righteous woman that slept with Judah by acting as a prostitute, in order to get the end result she needed for her dead husband, though fornication is a sinful act. However, it is more sinful to let a tribe perish from the earth, this is why her deeds were more righteous that Judah's.

In conclusion, if someone is "married" in a trinitarian church, they are NOT married in the eyes of heaven. But, if they been married in a synagogue or by a minister that believes in the "shema" (with a Jewish mentality) they are truly married. If they were "married" in the name of a foreign god, as Allah, Zeus, Ra, Odin, or...., even by the state, they are Not Married, she is a free woman. She must repent, however, for all her accidental fornications or, possibly, deliberate fornications.

To answer your questions, a person can get married multiple times without HaShem condemning them or calling them unclean in some way, just as long as the person becomes single again or divorced in a proper manner, according to the laws I pointed out. Likewise, as we know, the death of spouse frees a person to marry again.

Sincerely - your friend,

Thomas

Laws surrounding marriage and divorce. My response to a friend's e-mail

BY Thomas Shaler

MY FRIEND'S INITIAL E-MAIL TO ME:

October 29, 2007

Thomas:

I was wondering if a woman has been married twice before but then decides to remarry for the third time does this not mean she is dirty, unclean or soiled because she has been with the two men she was married to prior and these were not done in the eyes of God. 

I look forward to your answer.

Thank You

MY FIRST RESPONSE on OCT. 30, 2007:

Good evening,

What do you mean by, "not done in the eyes of God?" Was this done in the eyes of the "state" only vs. a synagogue?

Likewise, a deeper answer to your question lies on what your faith is. For example: I am a Jew that believes in one God and in Judaism, yet my neighbor believes in one god also, yet his god is allah and his faith is Islam. Under these circumstances the Islamic woman was never married, even though she was in the eyes of her faith. I say this because allah is a non-existing god, thus all her vows are invalid. Thus, in these circumstances her and her "husband" were commiting fornication.

Let me know the answer above then I can ask - What grounds was the woman divorced?

Because this also changes the outcome of the answer.

I will wait to hear from you. Remember, HaShem is rich in mercy.

Thomas

MY FRIEND'S SECOND E-MAIL TO ME:

October 30, 2007

Hello Thomas:

I guess what I am asking is if your are married in lets say a synogog or a church at that time it is legally binding and bind in the eyes of your God.  What I am asking is first of all, do you have to be legally married to be married in the eyes of God?  Or can someone just have a religous ceremony and not a legal one?  As for divorce there are many reasons that a woman would file for divorce.  Which ones would be acceptable and how many marriages are two many?  Does this make sense?

Thank you for your time.