lost

In archaeology, this inscription is called the "Siloam Inscription." It is called this because it was found in the tunnel leading to the pool of Siloam.

Here is what the inscription says:

"[...when] (the tunnel) was driven through. And this was the way in which it was cut through:- While [...] (were) still [...] axe(s), each man toward his fellow, and while there were still three cubits to be cut through, [there was heard] the voice of a man calling to his fellow, for there was an overlap in the rock on the right [and on the left]. And when the tunnel was driven through, the quarrymen hewed (the rock),each man toward his fellow, axe against axe; and the water flowed from the spring toward the reservoir for 1,200 cubits, and the height of the rock above the head(s) of the quarrymen was 100 cubits."

Here is another picture, in color:

Thus do you see my point? I will show you

what the modern Hebrew looks like in case

you do not know:

Now let us try and find the earliest inscriptions of the Modern Hebrew.

.... Well, I have to stop for a second, because in my studying for this web page I found something very interesting!!!!! I was looking for the earliest manuscript or inscription I could find in Modern Hebrew and as I was doing so I came across the Dead Sea scrolls. Well, the particular scroll I was looking at was a non-biblical Psalm. As I was looking at it and saw it was written in the modern Hebrew I found something very interesting to say the least!!!! The people that made the scroll kept the name "Yehowah" in its original ancient font where all the other words are modernized. Here look:

So we can see here, by this scroll, that only the actual name "Yehowah" was the only word/name preserved when they made their new scrolls. But, as we now know even His name was lost in text form in time. Until of course, the people of archaeology unearthed His name in it's original Hebrew form.

Now to get back on track, this is apparently, the, or at least one of the, earliest forms of Modern Hebrew. Therefore, since we found out what the original Hebrew looks like, we now know that the original law of Moses was lost long ago. Thus, it is then obviously clear that the Torah we have today was written down from memory at a much later period, long after Hezekiah. This explains why the author of Deuteronomy could tell how Moses died, instead of Moses himself telling it. Furthermore, Deuteronomy never says, "I, Moses", it says "Moses said," thus also indicating Moses did not write it. Also, we can see that the Torah we have today lacks so many laws, where you can find glimpses of the original law through the Psalms and the prophets. For nowhere in the Torah does it say to blow the shofar during the New Moon or full moon, but Psalm 81:3 says so. Also, the Torah never says you must not conduct business during the new moon, but Amos 8 does (see my article on Rosh Chodesh).

Another give away, if you study at all, to know whether or not the Torah was written by Moses or not if you were to ignore all the above information is a simple is by the word, 'prophet.' Let me explain:

Before Saul became king of Israel there is a story about him and his family. In this story the donkeys of Saul's family got loose somehow and Saul's parents wanted him to go and look for them. So Saul took his friend with him as he went to go look for the donkeys. While they were looking Saul's friend mentioned to him they they should go to see the "seer." At this the narrator or author of this book adds a little history note by saying, at that time the people would call such holy men, "seers," but now they call them "prophets."

Well if you keep this little history lesson in mind and then read Genesis you can see in Genesis 20:7 that the Lord is calling Abraham a prophet and not a 'seer.' Thus meaning it was written during or after the time of Samuel the prophet. Thus making it impossible for Moses to have written the Torah we have today.

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Further Notes added on Nov 19, 2007 / 8-9-6180+

Just recently Yehowah gave unto me even more knowledge and wisdom concerning this article. I think it is awesome knowledge, because it gives a greater detail as in to when the modern day torah was literally written. As I was meditating on the things of Yehowah and studying in a Gentile library in Fort Smith, Arkansas in regards to finding things regarding Ancient Sumer and Ur and also Nebuchadnezzar's Babylonia and Cyrus' Persia I was looking in the back pages of a certain book, in the back pages it gave a list of the kings of these kingdoms. As I was thumbing through its pages, the poor scholar gave a chronicle list of these kings with other kings of the time, as compared to the kings of Assyria, Israel, Judah and .... This author also had the kings of Urartu. I it was at this point a holy one whispered in my ear some fascinating knowledge. The knowledge was this: he made me understand what the author of Genesis wrote in Genesis 8:4, which is this: And the ark rested in the seventh month, on the seventeenth day of the month, upon the mountains of Ararat," according to the KJ Version and other versions. Well, I already knew that "Ararat" is not "Ararat," but "Urartu." I know this because as you can see with the verse "Ararat" is not a mountain, it is a region. So what is the info that the holy one let me "see?" It is this: Whoever the author of Genesis was, he could only write it while the Kingdom of Urartu existed and in Moses' day and even in King Solomon's day the Kingdom of Urartu did not yet come into existence, thus giving us a "date" as in to when the author compiled these writings. According to archeologists and scholars the Kingdom of Urartu only existed during the years: 858-585? BCE. Thus, it was somewhere during these 268 years that the author wrote these things. Likewise, if you read real close to the authors words you can tell he is in Zion at the time of his authorship, because he writes in Genesis 2, "And Yehowah Elohim planted a garden eastward in Eden; and there he put the man whom he had formed," meaning: "east of where?" Again, he writes in Genesis 11:1-2, "And the whole earth was of one language, and of one speech. And it came to pass, as they journeyed from the east, that they found a plain in the land of Shinar; and they dwelt there." One must realize by these words that the author is more west than Shinar and the Ark was more East than Babylon, thus making the ark possibly landing in modern day Iran. One must remember that archeologists only go by actual found stuff, items and places, thus to them if they never found such evidence as of yet, even though not everything was documented 2,700 years ago - it simply does not exist for them. This is why the ark is a myth to them, as well as Jesus, Solomon and David. What they do not realize is this one fact, just because a certain group of people may have never lived in a certain area, does not mean they did not control that area. For Nebuchadnezzar controlled all of Israel, yet there is no Babylonian culture found anywhere in Israel, nor any of their temples, nor their writing, their monuments, nothing!! Yet, Babylon controlled it all, then later Persia. Do you get my point?

Here is the difference between what the modern Torah says with its current vowels and the word without vowels, which they did not have back in the days of the Kings of Judah.

Thus, my friends, my opinion is that the current torah was probably written sometime during King Hezekiah or during the days of King Josiah. Why do I think this? Not because the people of Judah needed it, but Israel. Keep in mind that the Kingdom of Israel was so evil that HaShem had the Assyrians carry them off into captivity. So it is my opinion that some prophet or sage or scribe made these things for the people of Israel that was in exile. This would explain why there are so many missing commandments that the set of books displays that they exist or that the writings of the prophets point out that they exist. Case in point is that Amos in chapter 8 is rebuking the people for yearning for the New Moons to be over so that they can do business. Well, not a single commandment exists in the Torah mentioning the restrictions for the New Moons. Nor is it recorded that the priests must blow the shofar as Psalm 81:3 exposes. There are many other examples I can use, but this alone proves my case.

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Added notes:

1. 3:25 AM on 4/29/2009 -

It seems to me that the "Law of Moses" was not lost at the destruction of "Solomon's" Temple, because in Nehemiah 8 it would "appear" that it still exists in its original form. Even though one can argue this following point:

Because Judaism is a religion and a set of beliefs and guidelines, even if an enemy were to burn and wipe out every existing book, the customs and laws would still "live" on in the hearts of her followers. Thus, those followers could eventually write down those customs, beliefs and statutes of their personal sacred faith later on, making live again. So that they could have "sacred" books once again, though not as "sacred" and "holy" as the originals of course. In fact, those new writings might even be chuck full of discrepancies, but a narrative with slight discrepancies is far better than having no narrative at all or any history at all.

With that being said, I say this as an educated guess, instead of a pure guess:

It would seem that the original "law of Moses" or the last remaining [or near last] word or word copy of it [Deut 17:18] died off or perished some time after Nehemiah 8 and before 285 BCE when the Greek Septuagint was made. For according to the evidence that I said above, it is clear that Genesis through Deuteronomy was written about 800 years after Moses, if not longer.

Another thing I would like to say is this: If Genesis through Deuteronomy was written down during the days of the Kings of Judah, which seems likely, because of the mentioning of Urartu, my "theory" seems to "carry water" that there was no need for the author(s) to be too detailed concerning the law of Moses, because anyone could read it outright at the Temple. So why copy the whole thing instead of being based. If this is the case, however, one must ask this question: Why did the narrator make it and who was he making for, since the actual "law of Moses" was in the Temple and even existed in the days of Nehemiah? In my opinion, it was written for the Israelites of the Northern Kingdom, known as the "Kingdom of Israel" when the Kings of Assyria took them captive and hauled them off to foreign lands. Or, on the flip side of the coin it could have been intended for first round of captives that were taken in captivity into Babylon by Nebuchadnezzar during the reign of Jehoiachin [2 Kings 24:10-16].

Thank you,

Maregaal