1. The part that is circled in blue is a different font altogether; that is because these few words are not a
part of the original text. Rather, it is a commentary of the committee members that made the KJV.
2. Different letters and pronunciations than the 1611 KJV:
a. As you can see by Paul's name on the top of the page the letters "v" and "u" are used interchangeably
with the people of those times.
b. Likewise, you can see the difference in the spelling of particular words like Romans, it is spelled with
an added "e." Thus, it reads "Romanes."
c. Even though the letter "s" existed at that time, even in this picture, we still see
that the letter "f" is used in the name of Jesus so that is reads like this, "Jefus."
In earlier English language literature - in another study altogether - not biblical -
though the "J" may not exist; yet, the "Y" does. I say this because both of these
letters are present in this picture. That being said - Why not just translate the
saviour's name for what it really is, being "Yehoshua?" Instead, they still decided
to write his name as "Jefus." Now, if you would like to see a picture of the first
ever 'printed' English Version of the bible from the "original tongues," the
1537 Matthew-Tyndale Bible, click the picture on the right. Here you can see
the different style of writing they used at that time in comparison to your modern
KJV. Much of the wording in the King James Bible is derived from the Matthew-
Tyndale Bible. In truth, however, the very first "English" version was the "Coverdale
Version." In October of 1535, one of Tyndale’s friends, Myles Coverdale,
actually "printed" the very first completed English bible… however, it was a
"translation of a translation" from Latin and German and not from 'original tongues.'
d. Notice also, that in these earlier and original bibles they don't have the little
mark before the "s" to mark "someone's" ownership of something.
e. Even though this is the real "Authorized" Bible that was allowed by the throne of
England to exist in their evil churches, the churches of the Church of England, I had
to blot out the ungodly picture they put in their version. The woman in the picture
is absolutely naked.
Click Picture to see the 1455 Latin Gutenberg Bible - the first major thing ever printed!!!
Hand written - the "Middle [not modern] English" Wycliffe Bible of 1385. John 1:!.
Even this far back you can see the text is tainted!!!!! - CLICK PICTURE
Here is a page from the very first "printed" English Bible, the Coverdale Bible, that was published in 1535. This is from his first edition, it is NOT from the original languages, but from the Latin and German translations. Click Picture -
The following study is about trying to find the time and source where the "Comma Johanneum" may have originated from. In case you do not know what the Comma Johanneum" is, it is the passage found in 1 John 5:7, that is used in the original 1611 KJV that states these following words:
"For there are three that beare record in heauen, the Father, the Word, and the holy Ghost: and these three are one."
These very words were also added to the other revised editions of the 'Authorized' King James Bible in the years to follow.
Wikipedia.com and others claim that a humanist and Catholic scholar named Desiderius Erasmus eitherbrought the Comma Johanneum into existence in the Greek manuscripts or that
he restored the Comma Johanneum back to the Greek manuscripts when he made his own copies. This is because there were no surviving, nor existing Greek Manuscripts before his time that have the Comma Johanneum in them, though we can find it in modern translations! On top of all of this thus far, it can only be found in Erasmus' third edition of the Greek manuscripts, whereas he did not even have it in his first and second editions! His third copy edition of the Greek manuscripts was published in 1522. This is an important thing for those who shun the truth of this grave error recorded in modern translations, because it shows the pagan Trinitarian doctrine. I also am pointing this out because of how people tainted the written words of John for their power and heathenistic agendas. Desiderius Erasmus claimed, at least it is said, that when he made his first and second editions of the Greek "New Testament," this verse did not appear in the Greek. Yet, someone presented some paper or particular scroll or book that had this verse & belief in it, thus he included it in his third edition.
Now if you will do a study on this subject you will see that the Wycliffe Bible of 1385, which came along 137 years before Erasmus' Greek Bible, actually has the Comma Johannueum in it, also. Remember though that the Wycliffe Bible is taken from the "corrupt" Latin Vulgate of the Catholics, not from the Original Greek itself as Erasmus' version was. For even the Tyndale (1537) and Coverdale (1535) Bibles have the Comma Johannueum in them and Tyndale is taken from the Greek - so it is said. The sole reason that these two people made their versions in the first place was so that they could escape & expose the corruption that is in the Latin Vulgate and, apparently, now in the Greek manuscripts through Erasmus' Greek manuscripts that were printed 23-25 years earlier than theirs. We can conclude that it seems that they used Erasmus' Greek rendition. For the Catholic Church forced the Vulgate to be used upon all the people. Tyndale was even burned at the stake because of his translation into English. His version, nonetheless made it into the public after he died by a man by the name of name John Rogers, if I did my homework correctly. Furthermore, though Tyndale's Bible has the Comma Johanneum in it, it is nonetheless, more accurate and less corrupt than what the Latin Vulgate had become by the 1500's. Regardless, here is what the 1385 Wycliffe Bible says, - remember this is in 'middle English,' not modern English:
"For thre ben, that yyuen witnessing in heuene, the Fadir, the Sone, and the Hooli Goost; and these thre ben oon."
Now let me summarize what I just said for your memory, by the time the 1500's arrived the Latin Vulgate was so corrupt and tainted/slanted that it did not give a true rendering of the Greek manuscripts. A man by the name of Tyndale, translated his version of the Bible right out of the Greek manuscripts of that time [some say from Erasmus' Catholic Third Edition Greek]. However, Tyndale's version also has the Comma Johanneum. BUT, if we keep digging in our studies we can see that in the Original Latin Vulgate, also called "the Jerome Bible," of 382 AD; it says something totally different than what Wycliffe used in 1385. Originally, the Vulgate was commissioned by the head of the Catholic Church of that time, this head's name was Damasus. Here is what the 382 AD Catholic Latin Bible says in 1 John 5:7, "quia tres sunt qui testimonium dant." Translation: "For there are three that testify." Therefore, though the Comma Johanneum might be in the Latin Vulgate before the year 1385, it does not have any proof of existence in the Greek or real Manuscripts until we come to the Catholic man named Erasmus of 1522. The existence of the Comma Johanneum is seen in his third copy edition and is not found in his first
and second edition translations.
Likewise, you must remember that at the time Jerome translated the Greek into Latin in 382 AD, the so-called 'church' just had a council called the Nicene Council in 325 AD to combat other believers in Jesus that only acknowledged Jesus in the manner of how the scriptures refer to him or describe him. That is: Jesus is a made being (he was made by the God of Israel); being the firstborn of all creation, and he is "God's" only 'begotten' son. This means that the son had a beginning point, thus making it impossible for him to be God and eternal (The God of Israel never had a beginning, for He has always existed). Though these people who were debating with the Catholics had their own evils and errors, they nonetheless were more righteous than these wicked Catholics - the people that serve no god. The Trinitarian Catholics - called these people, "Arians." Whereas the people that came to be known as "Catholics" taught something totally foreign to Judaism and what Judaism says about the God of Israel and about His son that He sent. They taught and still teach unto this day that Jesus and the Father are the same God along with a third person called the Holy Spirit or Holy Ghost. Which is false, for if that were the case, Jesus is a Schizophrenic, because he prayed to himself - if he were 'God.' Likewise, if he were God, then he is sure ignorant, since he does not even know the day of his own coming and many other things. In fact, he does not even have a doctrine that originates from himself, for he says, "My doctrine is not my own, but His Who sent me. (John 7:16)" We can obviously conclude, therefore, that the Catholics are foul and blind. Nonetheless and regardless of all of this, when the trinitarian Catholics debated with these 'Arians,' the records show that they never brought up 1 John 5:7 to back up their trinitarian beliefs. They did not bring it up, because it is not there in the original Greek manuscripts, nor was it in the Latin Vulgate when it was first translated by Jerome in 385 AD. Thus, we can see the devilish and wicked Catholics playing with and tainting the words of the Apostles for their wicked seat of power and to push their agendas. Because of their wicked nonsense and then their coming into power through the sword of Emperor Constantine, most - if not all - of the people from that time until now have perished in their sins and shall go to hell on the day of judgment, because of their false and wicked trinity beliefs. On top of their false trinity beliefs, they teach what Paul the fake apostle pushed, which was a doctrine that was foreign to the master [Yehoshua] himself who taught that the Law of Moses and the prophets must always be kept. Paul taught that the Law was done away with and he said "For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith—and this not from yourselves, it is the gift of God— not of works, so that no one can boast... ....For he (Jesus) himself is our peace, who has made the two [Jew and Greek] one and has destroyed the barrier [the law of Moses that commands you to separate yourself from the nations], the dividing wall of hostility, by abolishing in his flesh the law with its commandments and regulations (Eph 2:8-9 & 2:14-15). Whereas the master himself said [and not some so called follower of him said] in Matthew 5, "Do not think that I have come to abolish the law [torah], nor and the prophets; I did not come to abolish, but to bring into fruition the predictions written therein."
Again the master says, "On that day [the day of Judgment] many [not some] will say to me, 'Lord, Lord'... ... then I will tell them plainly, 'I never knew you. Depart from me, you who practice lawlessness (anomia-ians) [Gr. those that do not practice the Torah]."
Thus, not only do you have Catholics tainting things, but also Paul and many others. For this is what even the master {Yehoshua/Jesus] himself says to the Ephesians in Revelation 2:1-2, "To the angel of the church in Ephesus write:
"These are the words of him who holds the seven stars in his right hand and walks among the seven golden lampstands: I know your deeds, your hard work and your perseverance. I know that you cannot tolerate wicked men, that you have tested those who claim to be apostles but are not, and have found them false."